CFA L1 econ question - 金融分析師

from Schweser 2010 Qbank 97006

statement: If we comapre any two productive inputs, the one with the higher

MRP(marginal revenue product) will earn greater economic rent.


why this statement is false? can't we imply higher MRP will result in steeper

supply curve(more inelastic supply)?

Or in labor market MRP is the demand curve while in economic rent we only

consider the difference bwtween the wage determined and the opportunity cost?


thanks for viewing.

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